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Old Jan 18, '13, 11:32 am
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Default Church "authority"

To what degree does your church have authority to command you?


What is the source of this authority?
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Old Jan 18, '13, 1:34 pm
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Default Re: Church "authority"

Not to speak for PJM, but seeing as how this is posted in the Non-Catholic Religions forum, I expect not either.
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Old Jan 18, '13, 2:24 pm
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Default Re: Church "authority"

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Originally Posted by choose to love View Post
Not to speak for PJM, but seeing as how this is posted in the Non-Catholic Religions forum, I expect not either.
Right. I assume the question is directed to non-Catholic Christians.
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Default Re: Church "authority"

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
The first mention of Mary flying off to heaven is in 377 by Epiphanius, and he claims "no one actually knows her end". If it was a doctrine necessary for salvation, then why did no one mention it for almost 350 years. And was Epiphanius dammed because he says that he doesn't actually know what happened? Even Isidore of Seville 300 years later admits that no one knows what happened, is Isidore of Seville dammed now too? The first explicit mention is in 590 by Gregory of Tours. So no Christian actually knew about Mary flying off to heaven until about 600 years after Christ. Were all those Christians dammed as well? Since it is such a late coming doctrine, it is pious opinion, and not binding on all Christians.
Wrong:
Quote:
If therefore it might come to pass by the power of your grace, it has appeared right to us your servants that, as you, having overcome death, do reign in glory, so you should raise up the body of your Mother and take her with you, rejoicing, into heaven. Then said the Savior [Jesus]: "Be it done according to your will" (The Passing of the Virgin 16:2-17 [A.D. 300]).
That's just written tradition, oral tradition goes back much furthur since the written word was not all they relied on.
BTW, your disrespect for the Virgin Mary is very telling.
She is your mother as well as ours if you are a Christian.
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Default Re: Church "authority"

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post

Check out Psalm 19:7-14

David rejoices in God’s Word, declaring it to be perfect, trustworthy, right, radiant, enlightening, sure and altogether righteous. As such, being that the Bible is “perfect,” no other writings are necessary because it is inspired by God and all we need for salvation, life in Christ, and the building of the Kingdom.
Yes, the Word of God is most excellent, and the CC affirms that it is materially sufficient, inspired, inerrant, and all these other commendable things. However, your conclusion above does not follow and is an extrabiblical principle. The Bible is not "perfect", for one thing, the Word of God is not limited to the Bible. The Word of God is a Person (who is perfect) but whose Word is in the Church as much as in the Bible.

The conclusion "no other writings are necessary" is also not a biblical concept, and if it were true, there would not be so many of them, including those that you use yourself (commentaries etc.)

The conclusion that the inspired Scriptures are "all we need for salvation " is also a false, anti-biblical statement. If this were true, then Jesus wasted His time and energy founding a Church.

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
Can you show me in your catechism where your denomination claims to be "in charge" of scripture?
No, he will not be able to do this. The Catechism, as you may well be aware, is clear that the Church is the SERVANT of the Scriptures.

However, we do receive from the Apostles that there are two equal and complimentary strands of Divine Revelation, including the Scriptures, and the Word of God alive and well in the Church (Sacred Tradition).

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
Scripture does not bow down to the authority of the church.
I agree with you on this point. And the Catechism affirms this point.

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
The church teaches truth and calls men to Christ and, in so doing, functions as the pillar and foundation thereof.
There is much more to the authority of the Church than just the preaching of the Gospel.

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
The church does not add revelation or rule over Scripture.
This is false. The Church did add revelation and rule to Scripture. the CC added the entire NT to the Septuagint, bound them together, canonize (created rules of inclusion) to the Scripture, paginated, chaptered and promulgated the Bible.

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
The church being the bride of Christ, listens to the Word of Christ, which is found in God-breathed Scripture.
Yes.

86 "Yet this Magisterium is not superior to the Word of God, but is its servant. It teaches only what has been handed on to it. At the divine command and with the help of the Holy Spirit, it listens to this devotedly, guards it with dedication and expounds it faithfully. All that it proposes for belief as being divinely revealed is drawn from this single deposit of faith."
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Default Re: Church "authority"

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Originally Posted by Isaiah45_9 View Post
Why would I not? I did ask for them. Do you remotely think that an internet threat will make me nervous...
Hello. You said:

Quote:
The Pope jurisdiction is clearly seen in

Matthew 16:18-19 (Douay Rheims)

18 And I say to thee: That thou art Peter; and upon this rock I will build my church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it.
19 And I will give to thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven. And whatsoever thou shalt bind upon earth, it shall be bound also in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose upon earth, it shall be loosed also in heaven.
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No, papal jurisdiction took centuries to develop. Matthew 16:18-19 is referencing Peter's confession of faith, not he himself. The rock is and always will be Jesus Christ, Peter's confession of Christ is the rock of the church. Augustine reflects this view:


‘On him as on a rock the Church was built’...But I know that very frequently at a later time, I so explained what the Lord said: ‘Thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my Church,’ that it be understood as built upon Him whom Peter confessed saying: ‘Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God,’ and so Peter, called after this rock, represented the person of the Church which is built upon this rock, and has received ‘the keys of the kingdom of heaven.’ For, ‘Thou art Peter’ and not ‘Thou art the rock’ was said to him. But ‘the rock was Christ,’ in confessing whom, as also the whole Church confesses, Simon was called Peter. But let the reader decide which of these two opinions is the more probable (The Fathers of the Church (Washington D.C., Catholic University, 1968), Saint Augustine, The Retractations Chapter 20.1).


Also, there is nothing about the Pope of old Rome here at all, popes did not start claiming universal jurisdiction for hundreds of years. That's why the Orthodox continue to reject such claims.

Quote:
2. Papal infallibility

John 14:16-18 (Douay Rheims)

16 And I will ask the Father, and he shall give you another Paraclete, that he may abide with you for ever.
17 The spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, nor knoweth him: but you shall know him; because he shall abide with you, and shall be in you.
18 I will not leave you orphans, I will come to you.
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John 14:26 (Douay Rheims)

26 But the Paraclete, the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things, and bring all things to your mind, whatsoever I shall have said to you.
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We believe this is still true today.
Nothing about any Pope of Rome here. Only that the Holy Spirit guides the church. I believe this wholeheartedly.

Quote:
3. Praying to saints or any dead person

You mean intercessory prayers? Heb 12:1 – What do you think the cloud of witnesses mean? Also, you think it is ok to ask a person to pray for you, but not a saint? You believe in evil spirits but not in good spirits?
Intercessory prayers are for those on earth, thats why the scriptures never ask anyone to pray to a dead person. The cloud of witnesses refers to the whole church. Yet the author of Hebrews never directs anyone to pray to one of these witnesses.

As for Eph 6:18, its asking us to pray "in the Spirit". Not pray to any spirits of dead folks who are in heaven. 1 John 4:1-3 is asking us to "test the spirits" because of false prophets. Nothing about praying to dead folks who are in heaven or asking them for anything. I believe in good and evil spirits who are angels, not ghosts or apparitions, things of that nature. Rev 8:3 shows the prayers of all Gods people are heard by God, nothing about praying to any dead folks who are in heaven.

Quote:
The first mention of Purgatory in the Bible is in 2 Maccabees 12:46: “Thus he made atonement for the dead that they might be freed from sin.”
From my "New Catholic Answers Bible".

"The statement is made here, however, only for the purpose of proving that Judas believed in the resurrection of the just" and "His belief was similar to, but not quite the same as, the Catholic doctrine of purgatory."

Quote:
Matthew 5:26
Matthew 5:26 is part of an analogy Jesus makes concerning the sin of hatred. Catholic apologists suggest that since Jesus refers to a person remaining in prison until he's "paid the last cent", that might be a reference to people suffering in Purgatory until their sins have been completely atoned for. But if Jesus is referring to the afterlife, as opposed to just referring to the consequences of sin in this life, He's referring to Hell, not Purgatory.Somebody who goes into eternity without having the sin of hatred atoned for would go to Hell, not any Purgatory. The person would indeed be there until he had "paid the last cent", but we know from other passages that the price is paid eternally .

Quote:
Matthew 12:32 says, “And whoever speaks a word against the Son of Man will be forgiven; but whoever speaks against the holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come.”
The Catholic Church teaches that Purgatory is for the atonement of sins that are already forgiven, so the passage isn't even relevant.

Quote:
Revelation 21:27: “…but nothing unclean will enter it, nor anyone who does abominable things or tells lies.” The place that is to be entered (the place to which this passage refers) is heaven (read the text around it for context).
I agree that no one whose name isn't in the Lamb's book of life will enter heaven. Nothing about purgatory here either.
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Default Re: Church "authority"

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Originally Posted by JustaServant View Post
Wrong:


That's just written tradition, oral tradition goes back much furthur since the written word was not all they relied on.
BTW, your disrespect for the Virgin Mary is very telling.
She is your mother as well as ours if you are a Christian.
Hello. You cited "Pseudo Melito's 'Passing of the Virgin'".

Actually Pseudo Melito is dated much later then 300. Most scholars date it to the late 5th century, that's why Gregory of Tours cites it.

Quote:
That's just written tradition, oral tradition goes back much furthur since the written word was not all they relied on.
How do you know?

Quote:
BTW, your disrespect for the Virgin Mary is very telling.
I don't disrespect her at all.

Quote:
She is your mother as well as ours if you are a Christian
Actually if I am a Christian, it means Mary is my sister. And I thought Catholics believed the Catholic Church is their mother. How can you have two mothers?
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Default Re: Church "authority"

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
Here is the clearest example of Sola scriptura taught in scripture:

II Timothy 3:16-17, "All Scripture is God-breathed, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for instruction, for training in righteousness, in order that the man of God might be complete, fully equipped for every good work."

The key words are "complete" and fully equipped".
Again I will agree with you, and this is the verse that is most often used to support the errant doctrine of SS. However, this verse does not say what you are trying to make it say.

It is clear that the Scripture is "profitable" in the TASK of instruction, training, etc. However, these TASKS were not delegated to Scripture, but to the CHURCH! Jesus never intended people to pick up a Bible and figure it out themselves.

Now, what does it mean to say that one "is fully equipped," if not to say that one is sufficient for a task?

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
To be fully equipped means lacking nothing. Paul expressly rejects any other source of teaching, no Pope, no magisterium or any other rule of faith.
This is a false statement. Furthermore, St. Paul was using the Septuagint, so this would mean that the NT is excluded.

It is the role of the bishop to teach:

1 Tim 1:3

I urge you, as I did when I was on my way to Macedonia, to remain in Ephesus so that you may instruct certain people not to teach any different doctrine,

Titus 2:15
15 Declare these things; exhort and reprove with all authority. Let no one look down on you.

1 Cor 14:37-38
37 Anyone who claims to be a prophet, or to have spiritual powers, must acknowledge that what I am writing to you is a command of the Lord. 38 Anyone who does not recognize this is not to be recognized.

2 John 9-11
9 Everyone who does not abide in the teaching of Christ, but goes beyond it, does not have God; whoever abides in the teaching has both the Father and the Son. 10 Do not receive into the house or welcome anyone who comes to you and does not bring this teaching; 11 for to welcome is to participate in the evil deeds of such a person.

3 John 9
I have written something to the church; but Diotrephes, who likes to put himself first, does not acknowledge our authority.

The Aposltes were given the authority of Christ,a nd they, in turn, gave this to their successors, the Bishops.

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
That the scriptures fully equip someone for every good work.
No. It says that the Scriptures are PROFITABLE in the task of equipping the saints for every good work. Whose job is that? To whom did Jesus give the gifts and power to equip the saints?

This verse does NOT say we don't need anything else, or that Scripture is the be all and end all of God's revelation to man.

Next we look at what type of activities in which Scripture is profitable (useful). These activities include teaching, reproof, correction and training in rightousness. These are all parts of the Christian process of sanctification. What is the goal of all this teaching, reproving, correcting and training? That the man of God may be equipped. Scripture is useful in equipping the tasks of forming disciples.

Nowhere does it say that Scripture alone accomplishes these tasks. In fact, we find the contrary. To whom did God give these tasks?

Eph 4:10-14
10 He who descended is the same one who ascended far above all the heavens, so that he might fill all things.) 11 The gifts he gave were that some would be apostles, some prophets, some evangelists, some pastors and teachers, 12 to equip the saints for the work of ministry, for building up the body of Christ, 13 until all of us come to the unity of the faith and of the knowledge of the Son of God, to maturity, to the measure of the full stature of Christ.

Jesus gave the gift of teaching and pastoring to PEOPLE, and these PEOPLE are charged with the responsibilty to equip the saints for the work of the ministry. These PEOPLE find scripture useful/profitable in the tasks of equiping the saints.

So I think that St. Paul here answers your question clearly. You need the people appointed and gifted by Jesus to equip you for the work of the ministry. You need to benefit from their use of the Scripture as they reprove, correct and teach you according to the gifts that God has established. And in the next verses he concludes:

Eph 4:14-16
We must no longer be children, tossed to and fro and blown about by every wind of doctrine, by people's trickery, by their craftiness in deceitful scheming. 15 But speaking the truth in love, we must grow up in every way into him who is the head, into Christ, 16 from whom the whole body, joined and knit together by every ligament with which it is equipped, as each part is working properly, promotes the body's growth in building itself up in love.

You need it because Jesus established His Church, and He is buildign that Church in love. He provided the gifted people to profitably use the scriptures for the purpose of bringing us all to maturity.

You need those people because that is the way Jesus set it up.
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Default Re: Church "authority"

(continued)


Quote:
Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
Is praying to Mary or any other dead person a good work?
Yes but none of those who are in Christ are "dead".
1 John 2:17
those who do the will of God live forever.

2 Tim 2:11
If we have died with him, we will also live with him;

There are none more righteous than those who have been perfected in faith.

James 5:16-17
The prayer of the righteous is powerful and effective.

[quote=Augustus24;10464103] The scriptures don't say to do that.'/quote]

I agree. But they do say that we are surrounded by a great cloud of witnesses. No one can be a witness who is "dead" or that cannot see or hear. But our Tradition of praying to those who have gone on before us has more support outside of Scripture than inside. It is part of the Word of God that was deposited once for all to the Saints before the NT was compiled.

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
The Or that Mary zoomed off into heaven, is teaching that a good work?
It is a good work to teach the resurrection. However, the CC does not teach that "Mary zoomed off to heaven". This is a falsehood I beseech you to refrain from spreading, as it only glorifies he who is the Father of Lies.


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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
The Yet the scriptures don't teach that either.
Nor the Trinity, the hypostatic union, the Theotokos, the observance of Sunday and a host of other things, like the canon of Scripture. Where do you find the table of contents for the Holy Writings? All these were developed by the Church. They are not "wrong" just becaue you cannot find them in Scripture.

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
The The scriptures don't fully equip a person for the aforementioned teachings in fact they know nothing of them at all.
Well, we read them differently, don't we?

And Catholics are not contaminated by the heresy of Sola Scriptura, so the fact that we don't find the Assumption or the word Trinity in the pages is not a concern for us.
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Actually if I am a Christian, it means Mary is my sister. And I thought Catholics believed the Catholic Church is their mother. How can you have two mothers?
Wrong again.

John 19:26 - Jesus makes Mary the Mother of us all as He dies on the Cross by saying "behold your mother." Jesus did not say "John, behold your mother" because he gave Mary to all of us, his beloved disciples. All the words that Jesus spoke on Cross had a divine purpose. Jesus was not just telling John to take care of his mother.

Rev. 12:17 - this verse proves the meaning of John 19:26. The "woman's" (Mary's) offspring are those who follow Jesus. She is our Mother and we are her offspring in Jesus Christ. The master plan of God's covenant love for us is family. But we cannot be a complete family with the Fatherhood of God and the Brotherhood of Christ without the Motherhood of Mary.

Your disrespect is in your terminology "flying off into Heaven" made several times in a snarky way. Thats something I would expect out of an athiest, not someone who claims to be a Christian.
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Default Re: Church "authority"

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
You are adding words to scripture. Paul did not say profitable as long as your denomination interprets it.
I agree with you. However, this seems to be happening on both sides. You are adding words to the Scripture also, to try to make them say what they do not.

The CC is not a "denomination". Denominations are those that split off from the One Church founded by Christ. He gave that Church "all authority", and taught them to interpret the Scriptures properly, and commissioned them to "rightly divide the word of Truth".

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
Here is the clearest example of Sola scriptura taught in scripture:

II Timothy 3:16-17, "All Scripture is God-breathed, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for instruction, for training in righteousness, in order that the man of God might be complete, fully equipped for every good work."

The key words are "complete" and fully equipped".

Now, what does it mean to say that one "is fully equipped," if not to say that one is sufficient for a task?

To be fully equipped means lacking nothing. Paul expressly rejects any other source of teaching, no Pope, no magisterium or any other rule of faith.

That the scriptures fully equip someone for every good work. Is praying to Mary or any other dead person a good work? The scriptures don't say to do that. Or that Mary zoomed off into heaven, is teaching that a good work? Yet the scriptures don't teach that either. The scriptures don't fully equip a person for the aforementioned teachings in fact they know nothing of them at all.
Here you have added the following
- The Scriptures fully equip someone for every good work (Scripture says otherwise)
- Everything that is taught needs to be found in Scripture (no where does it say that)
- Paul rejects other teaching/authority/rule of faith (Scripture expressely says the opposite)

Now I realize that you have been misled to believe these heresies, but that is what they are.

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
He added no other regula fide besides scripture, therefore scripture alone allows a christian to be "fully equipped".
No, Augustus, you are in error. On the contrary, Paul taught that the regula fide is contained in Sacred Tradition.

Gal 6:16
As for those who will follow this rule — peace be upon them, and mercy, and upon the Israel of God.

1 Tim 5:17-18

17 Let the elders who rule well be considered worthy of double honor, especially those who labor in preaching and teaching;

2 Thess 2:15
15 So then, brothers and sisters, stand firm and hold fast to the traditions that you were taught by us, either by word of mouth or by our letter.

Why would the Apostle command them to hold fast to something that was "man made"?

1 Thess 2:13-14

13 We also constantly give thanks to God for this, that when you received the word of God that you heard from us, you accepted it not as a human word but as what it really is, God's word, which is also at work in you believers.

The Sacred Tradition is God's Word at work in the Church. It is not the word of men.

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
No Paul quoted from the NT calling it "scripture".
Can you give an example?

Probably you are thinking of Peter, but this was before there was a "New Testament".
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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
That's a lot of sophistry to prove an extrabiblical doctrine.
I don't think you have used any sophistry, just bald faced and unsupported assertions that contradict the Scriptures.

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
The first mention of Mary flying off to heaven is in 377 by Epiphanius, and he claims "no one actually knows her end".
Augustus,, you don't have to agree with the Apostolic faith, but if you are going to post here, you need to respect our beliefs, and refrain from such disrespectful characterizations (which are false).

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If it was a doctrine necessary for salvation, then why did no one mention it for almost 350 years.
I could ask you the same about the Trinity, and the hypostatic union.

Doctrines were not defined and dogmatized until heresy was rampant. No one ever contested that the Mother of Jesus was take to heaven by her son.

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And was Epiphanius dammed because he says that he doesn't actually know what happened?
No. He was referring to the fact that we do not know for sure if she actually died, or if she was taken up near death. All we know is that her earthly life was completed.

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
Even Isidore of Seville 300 years later admits that no one knows what happened, is Isidore of Seville dammed now too? The first explicit mention is in 590 by Gregory of Tours.
Is there some reason that you think the mother of Jesus should not be united with Him in heaven?

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
So no Christian actually knew about Mary flying off to heaven until about 600 years after Christ. Were all those Christians dammed as well? Since it is such a late coming doctrine, it is pious opinion, and not binding on all Christians.
It is part of the Sacred Deposit of faith. We are not at liberty to jettison any of that Once For All divine revelation. We don't get to decide whether it is "necessary" or not. That is for God to decide. We are commanded to hold fast to it, so we do. The Reformers came along and began to assert that they had the authority to determine what could be kept and what could be thrown out. As a result, we have denominations (not part of God's plan).

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
Also, Jesus had no problem letting his earthly father die, Joseph. Was Jesus sinning when he allowed his dad to die?
This is not up to us to decide either.

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
It says that 20 elders have incense bowls which the smoke is the prayers of the saints. It doesn't tell people on earth to ask anything of anyone in heaven. Nothing about asking anyone in heaven to pray for you.
I agree with you on this point. I think the Scripture is relatively weak on the communion of saints. If we had not received this practice through the Sacred Tradition, I doubt that it would exist as it does as evidenced by those believers such as yourself that reject the Word of God in the Church.

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
I dont believe that Mary flew off into haven because its not in the scriptures, and no christian seemed to know about it for about 600 years after Christ.
Pleasen Augustus, try to curb yourself.

The CC does not teach that "Mary flew off to heaven". This is simply a lie.

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
I believe Mary is in heaven, but what she is doing in heaven, scripture is silent on that too. Let us not add our own words to scripture.
Mary is doing in heaven just what all the saints do, they pray for us, and intercede, and sometimes work miracles as God allows.

You have added quite a few concepts to Scripture yourself, so it seems ironic for you to make such a demand. Furthermore, the CC added 27 books to Scripture, which you seem to believe are fine to include?

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
Did Epiphanius teach the same by admitting he didn't know? How about Isidore? No, they are considered saints in the Catholic church, right? Jesus also let his father die, was he sinning against Joseph by letting him die?
The fact that the saints did not know everything does not mean the facts are not the facts.

It is not up to us to decide who God assumes into heaven. Why did He take Enoch, and not others? Why Elisha? Why did He allow Moses and Elijah to come to Him and discuss His upcoming departure in Jerusalem?

Why did God allow the prophet Samuel to appear and talk to King Saul and foretell his death? It is not up to us to decide these things.
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Default Re: Church "authority"

I see that you got banned while I was composing my last reply. This is regrettable, but probably it means that you were unable to curb your anti-Catholic hostility and the spreading of lies (accusing the CC of things she does not teach).

For the sake of any lurkers who may be reading I am going to go ahead and reply to some of your comments.

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
Intercessory prayers are for those on earth, thats why the scriptures never ask anyone to pray to a dead person.
It is true that we are to pray for one another, however, the Scriptures are clear that no one in heaven is "dead" - on the contrary, they are alive, and well, and are able to know whatever God wants them to know about activities here on earth.

The reason the "Scriptures never ask anyone to pray" to those who have gone on before us in faith is that the NT was never intended to be a full compendium of the faith. Ther e is a great deal that is not contained in it.

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The cloud of witnesses refers to the whole church. Yet the author of Hebrews never directs anyone to pray to one of these witnesses.
The NT is not intended to be a complete collection of directives to Christians. Jesus created a Chuch, and the Church is responsibile for directing the faithful. To Peter He gave the special feeding and guidance of the flock.

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
As for Eph 6:18, its asking us to pray "in the Spirit". Not pray to any spirits of dead folks who are in heaven.
I agree. There ARE no "dead saints in heaven". They are part of the living communion of saints, and we are all connected "in the Spirit" because we are members one of another. Death does not separate us from Him, and therefore, from each other.

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
Rev 8:3 shows the prayers of all Gods people are heard by God, nothing about praying to any dead folks who are in heaven.
It seems you are working very hard here to deny the communion of saints. The CC has been praying to those who have gone on before us in the faith since the martrydom of Stephen recorded in the book of Acts. If there were something wrong with this practice, how come it is not condemned in the NT, which was written later?

Acts 2:42
42 They devoted themselves to the apostles' teaching and fellowship, to the breaking of bread and the prayers.

The prayers of the Apostles, along wth the Apostolic teaching, fellowship, and Eucharist are contained in the Sacred Tradition. No effort was ever made to write them all down.

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Originally Posted by Augustus24 View Post
Matthew 5:26 is part of an analogy Jesus makes concerning the sin of hatred. Catholic apologists suggest that since Jesus refers to a person remaining in prison until he's "paid the last cent", that might be a reference to people suffering in Purgatory until their sins have been completely atoned for. But if Jesus is referring to the afterlife, as opposed to just referring to the consequences of sin in this life, He's referring to Hell, not Purgatory.Somebody who goes into eternity without having the sin of hatred atoned for would go to Hell, not any Purgatory. The person would indeed be there until he had "paid the last cent", but we know from other passages that the price is paid eternally .
Yes. Purgatory is a state of cleansing where all sins which have already been atoned for by Christ are purified from the person. No one has the grace of this purging without sins already having been atoned.

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The Catholic Church teaches that Purgatory is for the atonement of sins that are already forgiven, so the passage isn't even relevant.
Because you are right, ,unatoned sins bear the penalty of hell.

1 Cor 3:13-15
the work of each builder will become visible, for the Day will disclose it, because it will be revealed with fire, and the fire will test what sort of work each has done. 14 If what has been built on the foundation survives, the builder will receive a reward. 15 If the work is burned up, the builder will suffer loss; the builder will be saved, but only as through fire.

The person is saved already, and it is only their works, not done in Christ, that are burned away.

I will pray for you Augustus 24, for you obviously are suffering from some grave misunderstandings about the Catholic faith, and have an overwhelming degree of hostility toward the Sacred Tradition. May God deliver you from these things. And may Mary, Mother of the Church, reveal to you the fruit of her womb, Jesus.
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"The tradition of the Apostles has been made manifest throughout the world, and can be found in every Church by those who wish to know the truth." -- Irenaeus, writing about A.D. 189, on how the unity of the Church was based on the Apostolic Tradition everywhere handed down (paradosis).



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I see that you got banned while I was composing my last reply. This is regrettable, but probably it means that you were unable to curb your anti-Catholic hostility and the spreading of lies (accusing the CC of things she does not teach).

I will pray for you Augustus 24, for you obviously are suffering from some grave misunderstandings about the Catholic faith, and have an overwhelming degree of hostility toward the Sacred Tradition. May God deliver you from these things. And may Mary, Mother of the Church, reveal to you the fruit of her womb, Jesus.
You fight the hardest against what you are drawn toward the most....
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I see that you got banned while I was composing my last reply. This is regrettable, but probably it means that you were unable to curb your anti-Catholic hostility and the spreading of lies (accusing the CC of things she does not teach).
Thanks for explaining things better than I could!

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Originally Posted by guanophore View Post
I will pray for you Augustus 24, for you obviously are suffering from some grave misunderstandings about the Catholic faith, and have an overwhelming degree of hostility toward the Sacred Tradition. May God deliver you from these things. And may Mary, Mother of the Church, reveal to you the fruit of her womb, Jesus.
To think that I was once as blind as him...

Praise be to God I'm back home!
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Default Re: Church "authority"

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Here is the clearest example of Sola scriptura taught in scripture:

II Timothy 3:16-17, "All Scripture is God-breathed, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for instruction, for training in righteousness, in order that the man of God might be complete, fully equipped for every good work."

The key words are "complete" and fully equipped".

Now, what does it mean to say that one "is fully equipped," if not to say that one is sufficient for a task?

To be fully equipped means lacking nothing. Paul expressly rejects any other source of teaching, no Pope, no magisterium or any other rule of faith.

That the scriptures fully equip someone for every good work. Is praying to Mary or any other dead person a good work? The scriptures don't say to do that. Or that Mary zoomed off into heaven, is teaching that a good work? Yet the scriptures don't teach that either. The scriptures don't fully equip a person for the aforementioned teachings in fact they know nothing of them at all.
hello-- thanks for you input-- this type of discussion has been going on for more than 500 years -- especially with the counsel of Trent-- conclusion-

you do simply and clearly express your understanding of scripture--

it must get some people mad ! or rather frustrated

catholic90

Catholic Protestant Debate Faith Alone.

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  • ltehs63
    Trent session 6 canon1 "If anyone shall say that a man can be justified before God by his own works which are done either by his own natural powers, or through the teaching of the law, and without divine grace through Christ Jesus: let them be anathema."
    You see we don't need Justin Martyr to confirm what we already teach and we certainly don't need you telling us what we should and should not believe especially when you have no clue what we actually teach.
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  • ltehs63
    Or the council of Trent session 6 ch5 "Justification must be derived from the predisposing grace of God through Jesus Christ
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  • ltehs63
    council of Orange that said "Grace is preceded by no merits. A reward is due to good works, if they are performed; but grace, which is not due, precedes that they may be done."
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  • ltehs63
    council of Orange that said "Grace is preceded by no merits. A reward is due to good works, if they are performed; but grace, which is not due, precedes that they may be done."
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  • ltehs63
    @Abukid, Do you really want to go down the road of quoting Justin Martyr?
    Faith Alone denotes faith is the only instrument. Paul makes an inseparable bond between faith AND love. "faith working through love." (Gal 5:6) by the same token he never says "faith working though works of law."
    Nothing Justin Martyr says is contradictory of the Catholic faith. Have you ever bothered reading what we actually teach? Or you here to preach? Have you heard of the council of Orange that said "Grace is prece
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  • ltehs63
    I invite you to read the bible again there is nothing in it that contradicts the church. You read the bible and you are your own authority there are 30,000 denominations. It's as if you guys have 30,000 popes. In the beginning they were all one. Ask yourself did the people in the early church interpret scripture apart from the apostles or those who learned from them?
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